city at night

city at night

Thursday, August 14, 2014

Different Flavors of Spanish















English as it is spoken by a Londoner is noticeably different from American English.  Therefore it should come as no surprise that the Spanish spoken in Madrid is distinct from what is spoken in Mexico City.

Throughout my schooling and my years as a teacher, standard Spanish-American Spanish was always taught.  Given our proximity to Mexico that is understandable.  And just as an American in England will have no trouble being understood, a person speaking Spanish-American Spanish in Spain will be understood.  However an American tourist in Spain, schooled in the textbook language as it is taught in the U.S., might have a bit of difficulty when listening to the Spanish of a person from Madrid.

Obviously, the Spanish language originated in Spain, more specifically in the central Spanish region of Castile (Castilla) which includes the capital city of Madrid.  The most noticeable difference in Castilian Spanish pronunciation is the use of the Castilian "zeta".  ("Zeta" is the Spanish word for the letter "z".)  The "z", as well as the letter "c" when followed by an "e" or an "i" is pronounced like our "th" sound.  So a word like "civilización" sounds like "thi-vi-li-tha-thión".  To our ears it sounds as if the person is lisping.  In fact there was an old wives' tale that Queen Isabella spoke with a lisp, and everyone in the royal court began affecting the Queen's way of speaking.   However, if that were the case, then why isn't the letter "s" similarly pronounced like a "th"?

It should be noted that the Castilian "zeta" is not used universally throughout Spain.  For example, it is not typical of the Spanish regions of Extremadura and Andalucía.  The fact that a large proportion of the Spanish conquerors and colonists who went to the New World came from those areas of Spain, explains why the "zeta" never took hold in the Americas.

There are also differences in vocabulary.  Again, that should not be surprising.  Think of how the British refer to the hood of a car as the "bonnet" or a baby carriage as a "pram".  In Mexico, when you go to the bus station to buy a ticket, you ask for a "boleto"...  but in Spain you ask for a "billete".  In Mexico, orange juice is "jugo de naranja", but in Spain it is "zumo de naranja".  The word "manzana" means apple, but in Spain it also refers to a city block. 

In grammar the biggest difference in Spain is the use of "vosotros".  This requires a bit of explanation.  In the Spanish language there are several words for "you"... there is "tú" which is used when speaking to family and friends... there is "usted", the polite "you" which is used in more formal situations... and there is "ustedes", which is used when speaking to more than one person (comparable to our Southern "y'all").  Are you confused yet?

However, when discussing the differences between Mexican Spanish and Spanish Spanish, there is a further complication.  In Mexico, if you are speaking to more than one person, you use "ustedes" regardless of whether you are talking to friends or strangers.  But in Spain, you use "vosotros" when speaking to more than one friend.  Not only that, but "vosotros" has its own separate verb conjugations!  So in Mexico, you would say "Ustedes son muy amables." (You all are very kind.)  In Spain it would be "Vosotros sois muy amables".

As a student and teacher of Spanish, I never learned nor taught "vosotros".  We were made aware of its existence, but that's all.  I must admit that I don't even know the verb conjugations of "vosotros", although I recognize them when I read them or hear them.  For the typical tourist in Spain it's not a major issue.  How likely are you to be in a situation where you are speaking to a group of friends?  However, now that I have a circle of family and friends in Spain, I really should become more familiar with "vosotros".  If I am speaking to my cousin Werner and his partner Manuel, I should address them as "vosotros".  Oh well, they realize my Spanish is Mexican.  In fact, Werner has teased me (without any insult intended) that I speak like a Mexican.

I could continue with a discussion of differences between Mexican Spanish and Argentinian Spanish, Puerto Rican Spanish... etc., etc.  But your language lesson for today has come to an end!

7 comments:

  1. Maybe you can explain why stop signs in Yucatan say Alto, not Pare. And why our Puerto Rican Spanish only gets us so far.

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    1. Hi Lee,
      "Alto" is used on signs throughout Mexico not just in the Yucatan. In this case "alto" is not the common meaning as an adjective meaning "high" or "tall", but as an interjection meaning "halt".

      As far as Puerto Rican Spanish, it's another variation, again, like the difference between American English and British English. There are differences in vocabulary. One example that comes to mind quickly is that an orange is not "una naranja" but "una china" The Puerto Rican accent is quite distinct, and to me quite difficult to understand. Puerto Ricans have a tendency to swallow their consonants. So "¿Cómo está usted? sounds like "¿Cómo e-tá u-té?"

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    2. I was just talking on the phone with my friend from Mexico City. He confirmed that "alto" is used on stop signs throughout the entire country. We also talked about Puerto Rican Spanish. According to him, many of the early colonists on the island were from the Canary Islands, and to this day their Spanish pronunciation has similarities to the Canaries.

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    3. Just wanted to add that I saw "alto" used for stop signs when I was in Costa Rica, but "pare" was on stop signs in Peru.

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    4. And years ago, I actually saw a stop sign in Spain that said "STOP".

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  2. También en México usamos la acepción de manzana como en España, Espacio urbano, edificado o destinado a la edificación, generalmente cuadrangular, delimitado por calles por todos sus lados.

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    1. Sí, ¿pero en México no es mucho más común usar "cuadra" en vez de "manzana"?

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